1. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
A. Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
B. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
D. Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
2. Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: "That will be £11:20"
ELSE
Say: "That will be £19:50"
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: "That will be £9:75"
ENDIF
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: "That will be £11:20"
ELSE
Say: "That will be £19:50"
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: "That will be £9:75"
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
3. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
A. To find faults in the software.
B. To assess whether the software is ready for release.
C. To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
D. To prove that the software is correct.
4. Enough testing has been performed when:
A. Time runs out.
B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
C. No more faults are found.
D. The users won’t find any serious faults.
5. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
A. Actual results
B. Program specification
C. User requirements
D. System specification
6. Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.
A. i, iii, iv, v.
B. ii, iv and v.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i and v.
7. Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?
A. All document reviews involve the development team.
B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.
8. The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?
A. iii, i, iv, ii.
B. iii, iv, i, ii.
C. iii, ii, i, iv.
D. ii, iii, i, iv.
9. Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
A. An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
B. An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.
C. An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
10. Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
A. 17, 18, 19.
B. 29, 30, 31.
C. 18, 29, 30.
D. 17, 29, 31.
11. Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
12. What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
A. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
C. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
13. During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
A. A Test implementation and execution.
B. Evaluating test exit criteria.
C. Test analysis and design.
D. Test planning and control.
14. What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A. To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B. To communicate how testing will be performed.
C. To produce a test schedule.
D. To produce a work breakdown structure.
15. Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
A. Test plan.
B. Test procedure specification.
C. Test case specification.
D. Test design specification.
16. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
A. Determining the test approach.
B. Preparing test specifications.
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.
17. What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
18. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
A. £28000.
B. £33501.
C. £32001.
D. £1500.
19. Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
A. Dynamic Analysis tool.
B. Test Execution tool.
C. Static Analysis tool.
D. Security tool.
20. When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that
A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product
B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail
C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| C | A | D | B | C | A | C | A | D | C |
| 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| D | B | B | B | B | A | D | B | B | A |
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