1. A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production.
Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
A. To build confidence in the application.
B. To detect bugs in the application.
C. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
D. To train the users.
B. To detect bugs in the application.
C. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
D. To train the users.
2. According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word 'bug' is synonymous with which of the following words?
A. Incident
B. Defect
C. Mistake
D. Error
B. Defect
C. Mistake
D. Error
3. According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
A. Negative feedback to the tester.
B. Negative consequences that will occur.
C. Negative consequences that could occur.
D. Negative consequences for the test object.
B. Negative consequences that will occur.
C. Negative consequences that could occur.
D. Negative consequences for the test object.
4. Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
A. Preventing defects in the system.
B. Finding defects through dynamic testing.
C. Gaining confidence in the system.
D. Finishing the project on time.
B. Finding defects through dynamic testing.
C. Gaining confidence in the system.
D. Finishing the project on time.
5. A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
A. Exhaustive testing is impossible
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Absence-of-errors fallacy
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Absence-of-errors fallacy
6. According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
A. To verify the success of corrective actions.
B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.
B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.
7. Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
A. Understanding what managers value about testing.
B. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
C. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
D. Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
B. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
C. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
D. Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
8. Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
A. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
B. Test principles only affect test execution activities.
C. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
D. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.
B. Test principles only affect test execution activities.
C. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
D. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.
9. What are good practices for testing within the development life cycle?
A. Early test analysis and design.
B. Different test levels are defined with specific objectives.
C. Testers will start to get involved as soon as coding is done.
D. A and B above.
B. Different test levels are defined with specific objectives.
C. Testers will start to get involved as soon as coding is done.
D. A and B above.
10. Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?
A. Objectives should be generic for any test level.
B. Objectives are the same for each test level.
C. The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance.
D. Each level has objectives specific to that level.
B. Objectives are the same for each test level.
C. The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance.
D. Each level has objectives specific to that level.
11. Which of the following is a test type?
A. Component testing
B. Functional testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing
12. Which of the following is a non-functional quality characteristic?
A. Feasibility
B. Usability
C. Maintenance
D. Regression
13. Which of these is a functional test?
A. Measuring response time on an on-line booking system.
B. Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.
C. Checking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.
D. Checking how easy the system is to use.
14. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes?
A. There is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process.
B. Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed.
C. Always run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
D. Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
15. A regression test:
A. Is only run once.
B. Will always be automated.
C. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
D. Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
16. Non-functional testing includes:
A. Testing to see where the system does not function correctly.
B. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability.
C. Gaining user approval for the system.
D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.
17. Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?
A. Software code
B. Requirements specification
C. Test designs
D. All of the above
18. Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?
A. Gives quality information about the code without executing it.
B. Checks expected results against actual results.
C. Can detect memory leaks.
D. Gives information about what code has and has not been exercised.
19. Which is not a type of review?
A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Informal review
D. Management approval
20. What statement about reviews is true?
A. Inspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily.
B. Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not.
C. In a walkthrough, the author does not attend.
D. Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained.
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| A | B | C | A | A | C | B | D | D | D |
| 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| B | B | C | D | C | B | D | A | D | A |
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