1. According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?
A. A bug report
B. A defect report
C. An incident report
D. A test summary report
2. A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks.
What is one possible use of such a report?
A. To identify new risks to system quality.
B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
C. To check risk coverage by tests.
D. To measure exploratory testing.
3. Which tools help to support static testing?
A. Static analysis tools and test execution tools.
B. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.
C. Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.
D. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools.
4. Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?
A. Test management and control.
B. Test specification and design.
C. Test execution and logging.
D. Performance and monitoring.
5. What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?
A. Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing.
B. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.
C. Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.
D. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests.
6. What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
A. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.
B. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased.
C. The tool may find defects that aren't there.
D. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.
7. Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?
A. A. Data-driven and keyword-driven
B. Data-driven and capture-driven
C. Capture-driven and keyhole-driven
D. Playback-driven and keyword-driven
8. Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?
A. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.
B. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
C. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
D. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.
9. Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation?
A. Decide which tool to acquire.
B. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.
C. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.
D. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets.
10. What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
A. Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.
B. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.
C. Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or components.
11. An exhaustive test suite would include:
A. All combinations of input values and preconditions.
B. All combinations of input values and output values.
C. All pairs of input value and preconditions.
D. All states and state transitions.
12. Which statement about testing is true?
A. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
B. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work.
C. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
D. Testing can only be done by an independent test team.
13. For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database, which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have time to execute all of the steps?
1) Open database and confirm existing customer
2) Change customer's marital status from single to married
3) Change customer's street name from Parks Road to Park Road
4) Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 750
5) Replace customer's first name with exactly the same first name
6) Close the customer record and close the database
A. Tests 1 and 4
B. Tests 2 and 3
C. Tests 5 and 6
D. Tests 3 and 5
14. Consider the following list of either product or project risks:
I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.
II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.
III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.
V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following statements is true?
A. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
B. II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
C. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
D. III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.
15. Consider the following statements about regression tests:
I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.
II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system.
IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV
16. Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for structure-based (white-box) test techniques?
V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. Conditions or multiple conditions exercised
Z. Statements exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. Conditions or multiple conditions exercised
Z. Statements exercised
A. V, W or Y
B. W, X or Y
C. V, Y or Z
D. W, X or Z
17. Review the following portion of an incident report.
1) I place any item in the shopping cart.
2) I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart.
3) I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart.
4) I click the < Checkout > button.
5) I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, 'No items in shopping cart. Click to continue shopping.'
6) I click < Okay >.
7) I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates.
8) The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6.
Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following important aspects of a good incident report is missing from this incident report?
A. The steps to reproduce the failure.
B. The summary.
C. The check for intermittence.
D. The use of an objective tone.
18. Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing?
1) Over-reliance on the tool
2) Greater consistency and repeatability
3) Objective assessment
4) Unrealistic expectations
5) Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool
6) Ease of access to information about tests or testing
7) Repetitive work is reduced
A. Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
B. Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6
C. Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
D. Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7
19. Which of the following encourages objective testing?
A. Unit testing
B. System testing
C. Independent testing
D. Destructive testing
20. Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?
A. Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and require preparation and follow up.
B. There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.
C. Reviews must be controlled by the author.
D. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| C | A | D | C | B | A | A | B | D | B |
| 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| A | A | D | C | B | C | B | C | C | D |
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