1. Testing should be stopped when:
A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A. and C.
E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested
2. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
A. To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
B. To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
D. To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
E. To specify how the software should be divided into modules
3. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
A. Status accounting of configuration items
B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
C. Identification of test versions
D. Record of changes to documentation over time
E. controlled library access
4. Regression testing should be performed:
v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says
A. v & w are true, x – z are false
B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false
D. w is true, v, x y and z are false
E. All of the above are true
5. A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
A. A dynamic analysis tool
B. A test execution tool
C. A debugging tool
D. A test management tool
E. A configuration management tool
6. The cost of fixing a fault:
A. Is not important
B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
E. Can never be determined
7. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
A. 1000, 5000, 99999
B. 9999, 50000, 100000
C. 10000, 50000, 99999
D. 10000, 99999
E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
8. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake
9. Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. Led by author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry exit criteria
s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough
A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
E. s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
10. Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start "outlook"
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
11. Test managers should not:
A. Report on deviations from the project plan
B. Sign the system off for release
C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
12. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
A. Business process-based testing
B. Performance, load and stress testing
C. Requirements-based testing
D. Usability testing
E. Top-down integration testing
13. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in
E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
14. Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
A. Measuring response time
B. Measuring transaction rates
C. Recovery testing
D. Simulating many users
E. Generating many transactions
15. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. To know when test planning is complete
E. To plan when to stop testing
16. Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print "Error"
ENDIF
Print "Error"
ENDIF
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
17. Unreachable code would best be found using:
A. Code reviews
B. Code inspections
C. A coverage tool
D. A test management tool
E. A static analysis tool
18. What information need not be included in a test incident report:
A. How to fix the fault
B. How to reproduce the fault
C. Test environment details
D. Severity, priority
E. The actual and expected outcomes
19. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
A. Test items (i.e. software versions)
B. What is not to be tested
C. Test environments
D. Quality plans
E. Schedules and deadlines
20. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
A. Test items
B. Test deliverables
C. Test tasks
D. Test environment
E. Test specification
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| E | C | B | C | E | B | C | C | B | B |
| 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| C | E | A | C | E | B | E | A | D | E |
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