1. When choosing which technique to use in a given situation, which factors should be taken into account?
V. previous experience of types of defects found in this or similar systems
W. the existing knowledge of the testers
X. regulatory standards that apply
Y. the type of test execution tool that will be used
Z. the documentation available
W. the existing knowledge of the testers
X. regulatory standards that apply
Y. the type of test execution tool that will be used
Z. the documentation available
A. V, W, Y and Z
B. U, V, W and Y
C. U, X and Y
D. V, W and Y
2. Given the state diagram in following Figure, which test case is the minimum series of valid transitions to cover every state?
A. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 – ES
B. SS - S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S3 - S4 – ES
C. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - S4 - S1 - S3 – ES
D. SS - S1 - S4 - S2 - S1 - S3 – ES
3. Why is independent testing important?
A. Independent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work.
B. Independent testing is more effective at finding defects.
C. Independent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used.
D. Independent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails.
4. Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?
A. Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models.
B. Handle all test automation duties.
C. Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers.
D. Gather and report test progress metrics.
5. According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager?
A. A test manager manages a collection of test leaders.
B. A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams.
C. A test manager gets paid more than a test leader.
D. A test manager reports to a test leader.
6. What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?
A. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test.
B. The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests.
C. The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the test design specification is midway between the two.
D. The test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project.
7. Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects?
A. Geographical separation of tester and programmers.
B. The departure of the test manager during the project.
C. The quality of the information used to develop the tests.
D. Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team.
8. The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution?
A. Test tasks
B. Environmental needs
C. Exit criteria
D. Test team training
9. Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan:
I. No known customer-critical defects.
II. All interfaces between components tested.
III. 100% code coverage of all units.
IV. All specified requirements satisfied.
V. System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules.
Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan?
A. All statements belong in an acceptance test plan.
B. Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan.
C. Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
D. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
10. According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?
A. A group of test activities that are organized together.
B. One or more test design specification documents.
C. A test type.
D. An ISTQB certification.
11. Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?
A. Percentage of test cases written.
B. Number of test environments remainin to be configured.
C. Number of defects found and fixed.
D. Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written.
12. During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: '90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?
A. The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release.
B. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release.
C. The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort.
D. The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release.
13. In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?
A. Evaluation
B. Summary of activities
C. Variances
D. Incident description
14. During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?
A. Traceability
B. Confirmation testing
C. Configuration control
D. Test documentation management
15. You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project?
A. The arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market.
B. Delivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle of system test.
C. An excessively high number of defect fixes fail during re-testing.
D. Failure to accept allowed credit cards.
16. A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the following determines the level of risk?
A. Difficulty of fixing related problems in code
B. The harm that might result to the user
C. The price for which the software is sold
D. The technical staff in the meeting
17. You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template and are currently completing the Risks and Contingencies section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed as a project risk?
A. Unexpected illness of a key team member
B. Excessively slow transaction-processing time
C. Data corruption under network congestion
D. Failure to handle a key use case
18. You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else should you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks.
B. Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product risk with tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to the project manager.
C. Execute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and impact of each product risk and execute mitigation actions for all project risks.
D. No further risk management action is required at the test planning stage.
19. According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is related to which of the following?
A. Control of the test project
B. The test object
C. A single test item
D. A potential negative outcome
20. In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement, 'At this point, I expect to receive an error message explaining the rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid input. Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for between one and five seconds and finally terminates abnormally, giving the message, "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue." '
This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections of an IEEE 829 standard incident report?
A. Summary
B. Impact
C. Item pass/fail criteria
D. Incident description
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| B | A | B | D | B | A | C | C | D | A |
| 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| C | B | A | C | D | B | A | A | B | D |
good question
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